MCQ of Computer Security with answer set – 2

11:54 م Unknown


1. …………….. are used in denial of service attacks, typically against targeted web sites.
A) Worm
B) Zombie
C) Virus
D) Trojan horse

2. Select the correct order for the different phases of virus execution.
i) Propagation phase                      ii) Dormant phase
iii) Execution phase                         iv) Triggering phase
A) i, ii, iii, and iv
B) i, iii, ii and iv
C) ii, i, iv an iii
D) ii, iii, iv and i


3. A ………………… attaches itself to executable files and replicates, when the infected program is executed, by finding other executable files to infect.
A) Stealth virus
B) Polymorphic Virus
C) Parasitic Virus
D) Macro Virus

4. …………………….. is a form of virus explicitly designed to hide itself from detection by antivirus software.
A) Stealth virus
B) Polymorphic Virus
C) Parasitic Virus
D) Macro Virus

5. A …………………….. creates copies during replication that are functionally equivalent but have distinctly different bit patterns.
A) Boot Sector Virus
B) Polymorphic Virus
C) Parasitic Virus
D) Macro Virus

6. A portion of the Polymorphic virus, generally called a …………………….. , creates, a random encryption, key to encrypt the remainder of the virus.
A) mutual engine
B) mutation engine       
C) multiple engine
D) polymorphic engine

7. State whether the following statement is true.
i) A macro virus is platform independent.
ii) Macro viruses infect documents, not executable portions of code.
A) i-only
B) ii-only
C) Both i and ii
D) Non i and ii

8. The type(s) of auto executing macros, in Microsoft word is/are
A) Auto execute
B) Auto macro
C) Command macro
D) All of the above

9. In …………….., the virus places an identical copy of itself into other programs or into certain system areas on the disk.
A) Dormant phase
B) Propagation phase
C) Triggering phase
D) Execution phase

10. A ……………… is a program that secretly takes over another Internet-attached computer and then uses that computer to launch attacks.
A) Worm
B) Zombie
C) Virus
D) Trap doors
Answers:
1.       B) Zombie
2.       C) ii, i, iv an iii
3.       C) Parasitic Virus
4.       A) Stealth virus
5.       B) Polymorphic Virus
6.       B) mutation engine
7.       C) Both i and ii
8.       D) All of the above
9.       B) Propagation phase
10.   B) Zombie


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Solved MCQ of Computer Security set -1

2:10 ص Unknown


1. In computer security, ……………………. means that computer system assets can be modified only by authorized parities.
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Availability
D) Authenticity

2. In computer security, …………………….. means that the information in a computer system only be accessible for reading by authorized parities.
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Availability
D) Authenticity


3. The type of threats on the security of a computer system or network are ……………………..
i) Interruption                   ii) Interception                  iii) Modification
iv) Creation                         v) Fabrication
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) ii, iii, iv and v only
C) i, ii, iii and v only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

4. Which of the following is independent malicious program that need not any host program?
A) Trap doors
B) Trojan horse
C) Virus
D) Worm

5. The ……….. is code that recognizes some special sequence of input or is triggered by being run from a certain user ID of by unlikely sequence of events.
A) Trap doors
B) Trojan horse
C) Logic Bomb
D) Virus

6. The …………….. is code embedded in some legitimate program that is set to “explode” when certain conditions are met.
A) Trap doors
B) Trojan horse
C) Logic Bomb
D) Virus

7. Which of the following malicious program do not replicate automatically?
A) Trojan Horse
B) Virus
C) Worm
D) Zombie

8. …………… programs can be used to accomplish functions indirectly that an unauthorized user could not accomplish directly.
A) Zombie
B) Worm
C) Trojan Horses
D) Logic Bomb

9. State whether true of false.
i) A worm mails a copy of itself to other systems.
ii) A worm executes a copy of itself on another system.
A) True, False
B) False, True
C) True, True
D) False, False

10. A ………….. is a program that can infect other programs by modifying them, the modification includes a copy of the virus program, which can go on to infect other programs.
A) Worm
B) Virus
C) Zombie
D) Trap doors
Answers:
1.       B) Integrity
2.       A) Confidentiality
3.       C) i, ii, iii and v only
4.       D) Worm
5.       A) Trap doors
6.       C) Logic Bomb
7.       A) Trojan Horse
8.       C) Trojan Horses
9.       C) True, True
10.   B) Virus


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Solved MCQ of Operating System Set-5

8:56 م Unknown


1. The unit of dispatching is usually referred to as a …………..
A) Thread
B) Lightweight process
C) Process
D) Both A and B

2. ……………….. is a example of an operating system that support single user process and single thread.
A) UNIX
B) MS-DOS
C) OS/2
D) Windows 2000

3. State true or false.
i) Unix, support multiple user process but only support one thread per process.
ii) A java run time environment is an example of a system of one process with multiple threads.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False

4. …………… are very effective because a mode switch is not required to switch from one thread to another.
A) Kernel-level threads
B) User-level threads
C) Alterable threads
D) Application level threads

5. …………… is a condition in which there is a set of concurrent processes, only one of which is able to access a given resource or perform a given function at any time.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Busy Waiting
C) Deadlock
D) Starvation

6. …………………. Techniques can be used to resolve  conflicts, such as competition for resources, and to synchronize processes so that they can cooperate.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Busy Waiting
C) Deadlock
D) Starvation

7. ……………. Can be defined as the permanent blocking of a set of processed that either complete for system resources or communicate with each other.
A) Deadlock
B) Permanent lock
C) Starvation
D) Mutual exclusion

8. The following conditions of policy must be present for a deadlock to be possible.
i) Mutual exclusion                                          ii) Hold and wait
iii) No preemption                                           iv) Circular wait
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

9. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrence of …………..
A) Mutual exclusion
B) Hold and wait
C) Circular waits
D) No preemption

 10. State true of false.
i) With paging, each process is divided into relatively small, fixed-size pages.
ii) Segmentation provides for the use of pieces of varying size.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False

Answers:
1.       D) Both A and B
2.       B) MS-DOS
3.       A) True, False
4.       B) User-level threads
5.       A) Mutual Exclusion
6.       A) Mutual Exclusion
7.       A) Deadlock
8.       D) All i, ii, iii and iv
9.       C) Circular waits
10.   B) True, True

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MCQ of Operating System with answer set-4

2:00 ص Unknown


1. .............. refers to a situation in which a process is ready to execute but is continuously denied access to a processor in deference to other processes.
A) Synchronization
B) Mutual Exclusion
C) Dead lock
D) Starvation

2. Which of the following is not the approach to dealing with deadlock?
A) Prevention
B) Avoidance
C) Detection
D) Deletion


3. Which of the following are the states of a five state process model?
i) Running            ii) Ready               iii) New                 iv) Exit                   v) Destroy
A) i, ii, iii and v only
B) i, ii, iv and v only
C) i, ii, iii, and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

4. State which statement is true for Suspended process?
i) The process is not immediately available for execution.
ii) The process may be removed from suspended state automatically without removal order.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) i and ii only
D) None

5. Following is/are the reasons for process suspension.
A) Swapping parent process
B) Inter request
C) Timing
D) All of the above

6. The different types of tables maintained by the operating system are .............
A) memory, logical , I/O file
B) memory, I/O, file, physical
C) memory, I/O, file, process
D) memory, logical, I/O, physical

7. Which of the following information not included in memory table?
A) The allocation of main memory to process.
B) The allocation of secondary memory to process
C) Any information needed to manage virtual memory
D) Any information about the existence of file

8. Process Management function of an operating system kernel includes.
A) Process creation and termination.
B) Process scheduling and dispatching
C) Process switching
D) All of the above

9. The typical elements of process image are .....................
i) User data         ii) System Data                  iii) User program              iv) System stack
A) i, iii and iv only
B) i, ii,  and iv only
C) ii, iii, and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii, and iv

10. Match the following mechanisms for interrupting the execution of a process and their uses.
i) Interrupt                                                                         a) Call to an operating system function
ii) Trap                                                                              b) Reaction to an asynchronous external event
iii) Supervisor Call                                                             c) Handling of a error or an exception condition
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
B) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

Answers:
1.   D) Starvation
2.   D) Deletion
3.   C) i, ii, iii, and iv only
4.   A) i only
5.   D) All of the above
6.   C) memory, I/O, file, process
7.   D) Any information..... of file
8.   D) All of the above
9.   A) i, iii and iv only
10.   C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

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Solved MCQ of Java for Java Proficiency test set-3

1:00 ص Unknown


1. All java classes are derived from
A) java.lang.Class
B) java.util.Name
C) java.lang.Object
D) java.awt.Window

2. The jdb is used to
A) Create a jar archive
B) Debug a java program
C) Create C header file
D) Generate java documentation


3. What would happen if "String[]args" is not included as argument in the main method.
A) No error
B) Compilation error
C) Program won't run
D) Program exit

4. For execution of DELETE SQL query in JDBC, ............. method must be used.
A) executeQuery()
B) executeDeleteQuery()
C) executeUpdate()
D) executeDelete()

5. Which method will a web browser call on a new applet?
A) main method
B) destroy method
C) execute method
D) init method

6. Which of the following is not mandatory in variable declaration?
A) a semicolon
B) an identifier
C) an assignment
D) a data type

7. When a program class implements an interface, it must provide behavior for
A) two methods defined in that interface
B) any methods in a class
C) only certain methods in that interface
D) all methods defined in that interface

8. In order to  run JSP ....................  is required.
A) Mail Server
B) Applet viewer
C) Java Web Server
D) Database connection

9. State true of false.
i) AWT is an extended version of swing
ii) Paint( ) of Applet class cannot be overridden
A) i-false, ii-false
B) i-false,ii-true
C) i-true, ii-false
D) i-true, ii-true

10. Prepared Statement object in JDBC used to execute........... queries.
A) Executable
B) Simple
C) High level
D) Parameterized

Answers:
1.       C) java.lang.Object
2.       B) Debug a java program
3.       C) Program won't run
4.       C) executeUpdate()
5.       D) init method
6.       C) an assignment
7.       D) all methods ... interface
8.       C) Java Web Server
9.       A) i-false, ii-false
10.   D) Parameterized

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MCQ of Java with answer set-2

11:10 م Unknown


1. The JDBC-ODBC bridge allows ……….. to be used as ………..
 A) JDBC drivers, ODBC drivers
B) Drivers, Application
C) ODBC drivers, JDBC drivers
D) Application, drivers

2. Which of the following is true about Java.
A) Java does not support overloading.
B) Java has replaced the destructor function of C++
C) There are no header files in Java.
D) All of the above.


3. ……………. are not machine instructions and therefore, Java interpreter generates machine code that can be directly executed by the machine that is running the Java program.
A) Compiled Instructions
B) Compiled code
C) byte code
D) Java mid code

4. The command javac
A) Converts a java program into binary code
B) Converts a java program into bytecode
C) Converts a java program into machine language
D) None of the above.

5. Which of the following is not the java primitive type
A) Byte
B) Float
C) Character
D) Long double

6. Command to execute compiled java program is
A) java
B) javac
C) run
D) javaw

7. Java Servlet
i) is key component of server side java development     
ii) is a small pluggable extension to a server that enhances functionality
iii) runs only in Windows Operating System
iv) allows developers to customize any java enabled server
A) i, ii & iii are ture
B) i, iii & iv are true
C) ii, iii & iv are true
D) i, ii & iv are true

8. Inner classes are
A) anonymous classes
B) nested classes
C) sub classes
D) derived classes

9. How many times does the following code segment execute
int x=1, y=10, z=1;
do{y--; x++; y-=2; y=z; z++} while (y>1 && z<10);
A) 1
B) 10
C) 5
D) infinite

10. State weather the following statement is true or false for EJB.
1. EJB exists in the middle-tier
2. EJB specifies an execution environment
3. EJB supports transaction processing
A) 1-true, 2. true, 3. true
B) 1- true, 2. false, 3. true
C) 1- false, 2- false, 3- false
D) 1-true, 2-true, 3-false

Answers:
1. C) ODBC drivers, JDBC drivers
2. D) All of the above.
3. C) byte code
4. B) Converts a java ....into bytecode
5. D) Long double
6. A) java
7. D) i, ii & iv are true
8. B) nested classes
9. A) 1
10. A) 1-true, 2. true, 3. true

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Solved MCQ of Computer Networking set-5

12:57 ص Unknown

1. Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol?
A) Application Layer
B) Session Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Internetwork layer

 2. ................... address use 7 bits for the <network> and 24 bits for the <host> portion of the IP address.
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D

3. ............. addresses are reserved for multicasting.
A) Class B
B) Class C
C) Class D
D) Class E

4. State the following statement is true or false.
i) In class B addresses a total of more than 1 billion addresses can be formed.
ii) Class E addresses are reserved for future or experimental use.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False

5. Which of the following statement is true?
i) An address with all bits 1 is interpreted as all networks or all hosts.
ii) The class A network 128.0.0.0 is defined as the loopback network.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

6. Which is not the Regional Internet Registers (RIR) of the following?
A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B) Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers (ERIN)
C) Reseaux IP  Europeans (RIPE)
D) Asia Pacific Network Information Centre (APNIC)

7. Match the following IEEE No to their corresponding Name for IEEE 802 standards for LANs.
i) 802.3                                  a) WiFi
ii) 802.11                              b) WiMa
iii) 802.15.1                          c) Ethernet
iv) 802.16                             d) Bluetooth
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

8. ........... was the first step in the evolution of Ethernet from a coaxial cable bus to hub managed, twisted pair network.
A) Star LAN
B) Ring LAN
C) Mesh LAN
D) All of the above

9. ............... is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two pairs of category 5 or above cable.
A) 100 BASE-T
B) 100 BASE-TX
C) 100 BASE-T4
D) 100 BASE-T2

10. IEEE 802.3ab defines Gigabit Ethernet transmission over unshielded twisted pair (UTP) category 5, 5e or 6 cabling known as ....................
A) 1000 BASE-T
B) 1000 BASE-SX
C) 1000 BASE-LX
D) 1000 BASE-CX

Answers:
1.       B) Session Layer
2.       A) Class A
3.       C) Class D
4.       B) True, True
5.       A) i only
6.       B) Europeans .....  (ERIN)
7.       C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
8.       A) Star LAN
9.       B) 100 BASE-TX
10.   A) 1000 BASE-T

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MCQ of Database Management System with answer set-6

10:51 م Unknown


1. ............... joins are SQL server default

A) Outer

B) Inner

C) Equi

D) None of the above


2. The ..................... is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.

A) Like Predicate

B) Null Predicate

C) In Predicate

D) Out Predicate


3. Which of the following is/are the Database server functions?
i) Data management            ii) Transaction management
iii) Compile queries            iv) Query optimization

A) i, ii, and iv only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, and iv


4. To delete a database ................... command is used

A) delete database database_name

B) Delete database_name

C) drop database database_name

D) drop database_name


5. .............. is a combination of two of more attributes used as a primary key

A) Composite Key

B) Alternate Key

C) Candidate Key

D) Foreign Key


6. Which of the following is not the function of client?

A) Compile queries

B) Query optimization

C) Receive queries

D) Result formatting and presentation


7. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the data in the table is modified.

A) Procedure

B) Trigger

C) Curser

D) None of the above


8. ................. requires that data should be made available to only authorized users.

A) Data integrity

B) Privacy

C) Security

D) None of the above


9. Some of the utilities of DBMS are .............
i) Loading          ii) Backup               iii) File organization          iv) Process Organization

A) i, ii, and iv only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, and iv


10. ................. allows individual row operation to be performed on a given result set or on the generated by a selected by a selected statement.

A) Procedure

B) Trigger

C) Curser

D) None of above

Answers:

1. B) Inner
2. A) Like Predicate
3. A) i, ii, and iv only
4. C) drop ....database_name
5. A) Composite Key
6. B) Query optimization
7. B) Trigger
8. C) Security
9. B) i, ii and iii only
10. C) Curser


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Solved MCQ of Operating System Theory set-3

10:49 م Unknown

1. Which of the following is not the function of Micro kernel?
A) File management
B) Low-level memory management
C) Inter-process communication
D) I/O interrupts management

2. Match the following.
i) Mutual exclusion                          a) A process may hold allocated resources while waiting assignment.
ii) Hold and wait                             b) No resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it.
iii) No preemption                           c) Only one process may use a resource at a time.
A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b



3. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrences of ...................
A) Mutual exclusion
B) Hold and wait
C) Circular waits
D) No preemption

4. The methods or algorithms which are used to increase the performance of disk storage sub-system is called .............
A) Disk performing
B) Disk scheduling
C) Disk storing
D) Disk extending

5. ................. is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track.
A) Seek time
B) Rotational delay
C) Latency time
D) Access time

6. The ............... policy restricts scanning to one direction only.
A) SCAN
B) C-SCAN
C) N-Step SCAN
D) Both A and B

7. ............... policy selects the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the disk arm from its current position.
A) FSCAN
B) SSTF
C) SCAN
D) C-SCAN
8. .................. refers to the ability of an operating system to support multiple threads of execution with a single process.
A) Multithreading
B) Multiprocessing
C) Multiexecuting
D) Bi-threading

 9. State whether the following statement is true.
i) It takes less time to terminate a thread than a process.
ii) Threads enhance efficiency in communication between different executing programs.
A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True
C) i-False, ii-True
D) i-False, ii-False

10. ............ is a special type of programming language used to provide instructions to the monitor simple batch processing schema.
A) Job control language (JCL)
B) Processing control language (PCL)
C) Batch control language (BCL)
D) Monitor control language (MCL)

Answers:
1.   A) File management
2.   D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b
3.   C) Circular waits
4.   B) Disk scheduling
5.   A) Seek time
6.   B) C-SCAN
7.   B) SSTF
8.   A) Multithreading
9.   B) i-True, ii-True
10.   A) Job control language (JCL)
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Solved MCQ of Database Management System (DBMS) Set - 5

12:56 ص Unknown


1. The relational model is based on the concept that data is organized and stored in two-dimensional tables called ……………………….

A) Fields

B) Records

C) Relations

D) Keys


2. ……………….. contains information that defines valid values that are stored in a column or data type.

A) View

B) Rule

C) Index

D) Default


3. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement?
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values>
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of values>

A) i-only

B) ii-only

C) Both of them

D) None of them


4. ………………. First proposed the process of normalization.

A) Edgar. W

B) Edgar F. Codd

C) Edward Stephen

D) Edward Codd


5. For using a specific database …………… command is used.

A) use database

B) database name use

C) Both A &B

D) None of them


6. Which of the following is not comparison operator?

A) <>

B) <

C) =<

D) >=


7. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for automatic ………… to the target data.

A) programming

B) functioning

C) navigation

D) notification


8. ………………… is a special type of integrity constraint that relates two relations & maintains consistency across the relations.

A) Entity Integrity Constraints

B) Referential Integrity Constraints

C) Domain Integrity Constraints

D) Domain Constraints

E) Key Constraints


9. ……………..specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate.

A) GROUP BY Clause

B) HAVING Clause

C) FROM Clause

D) WHERE Clause


10. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by a …………… constraint.

A) Local Key

B) Primary Key

C) Composite Key

D) Foreign Key


Answers:

1. C) Relations
2. C) Index
3. C) Both of them
4. B) Edgar F. Codd
5. A) use database
6. C) =<
7. C) navigation
8. B) Referential.....Constraints
9. B) HAVING Clause
10. D) Foreign Key

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MCQ of Computer Networking with answer set-4

12:53 ص Unknown


1. Which of the following is not the layer of TCP/IP protocol?
A) Application Layer
B) Session Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Internetwork layer

 2. ................... address use 7 bits for the <network> and 24 bits for the <host> portion of the IP address.
A) Class A
B) Class B
C) Class C
D) Class D


3. ............. addresses are reserved for multicasting.
A) Class B
B) Class C
C) Class D
D) Class E

4. State the following statement is true or false.
i) In class B addresses a total of more than 1 billion addresses can be formed.
ii) Class E addresses are reserved for future or experimental use.
A) True, False
B) True, True
C) False, True
D) False, False

5. Which of the following statement is true?
i) An address with all bits 1 is interpreted as all networks or all hosts.
ii) The class A network 128.0.0.0 is defined as the loopback network.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

6. Which is not the Regional Internet Registers (RIR) of the following?
A) American Registry for Internet Numbers (ARIN)
B) Europeans Registry for Internet Numbers (ERIN)
C) Reseaux IP  Europeans (RIPE)
D) Asia Pacific Network Information Centre (APNIC)

7. Match the following IEEE No to their corresponding Name for IEEE 802 standards for LANs.
i) 802.3                                  a) WiFi
ii) 802.11                              b) WiMa
iii) 802.15.1                          c) Ethernet
iv) 802.16                             d) Bluetooth
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
D) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a

8. ........... was the first step in the evolution of Ethernet from a coaxial cable bus to hub managed, twisted pair network.
A) Star LAN
B) Ring LAN
C) Mesh LAN
D) All of the above

9. ............... is the predominant form of Fast Ethernet, and runs over two pairs of category 5 or above cable.
A) 100 BASE-T
B) 100 BASE-TX
C) 100 BASE-T4
D) 100 BASE-T2

10. IEEE 802.3ab defines Gigabit Ethernet transmission over unshielded twisted pair (UTP) category 5, 5e or 6 cabling known as ....................
A) 1000 BASE-T
B) 1000 BASE-SX
C) 1000 BASE-LX
D) 1000 BASE-CX

Answers:
1.       B) Session Layer
2.       A) Class A
3.       C) Class D
4.       B) True, True
5.       A) i only
6.       B) Europeans .....  (ERIN)
7.       C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
8.       A) Star LAN
9.       B) 100 BASE-TX
10.   A) 1000 BASE-T

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