Objective Questions on Computer Fundamentals set-7

1) Central Processing Unit is combination of .....

A. Control and Storage Unit

B. Control and Output Unit

C. Arithmetic Logic and Input Unit

D. Arithmetic Logic and Control Unit

2) The octal equivalent of 111010 is ......

A. 81

B. 72

C. 71

D. None of the above

3) Programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as ....

A. System Software

B. Application Software

C. Utility Software

D. Operating Software

4) Analog Computer works on the supply of

A. Continuous electrical pulses

B. Electrical pulses but not continuous

C. Magnetic strength

D. None of the above

5) Time during which a job is processed by a the computer is ....

A. Delay times

B. Real time

C. Execution time

D. Down time

6) Which of the following chips can be reprogrammed with special electric pulses?

A. EPROM

B. PROM

C. ROM

D. EEPROM

7) Hexadecimal number system have ...

A. One stable stage

B. Two stable state

C. Eight Stable state

D. Sixteen Stable state

8) The mostly commonly used standard data code to represent alphabetical, numerical and punctuation character used in electronic data processing system is called ...

A. ASCII

B. EDCDII

C. BCD

D. All of the above

9) The term gigabyte refers to ...

A. 1024 bytes

B. 1024 kilobytes

C. 1024 megabytes

D. 1024 terabytes

10) Seek time is .....

A. Time to position the head over proper track

B. Time to position the head over proper sector

C. Time to position the head over proper cylinder

D. None of the above

11) Which is considered a direct entry input device?

A. Optical scanner

B. Mouse and digitizer

C. Light pen

D. All of the above

12) Group of instructions that directs a computer is called ...

A. Storage

B. Logic

C. Memory

D. Program

13) A type of memory chip whose contents can not be saved when a computer is turned off ....

A. ROM

B. PROM

C. RAM

D. EPROM

14) In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed .....

A. Parallel only

B. Sequentially only

C. Both sequentially and parallel

D. All of the above

15) Which of the following terms is the most closely related to main memory?

A. None volatile

B. Permanent

C. Control unit

D. Temporary

16) Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program ...

A. Machine language

B. Assembly language

C. High level language

D. None of the above

17) Which of the following is used only for data entry and storage, and never of processing?

A. Mouse

B. Dumb terminal

C. Micro computer

D. Dedicated data entry system

18) Who is called called the "GrandFather" of the computer?

A. Blaise Pascal

B. Charles Babbage

C. Joseph Jacquard

D. Dr. Herman Hollerith

19) The translator program used in assembly language is called ...

A. Computer

B. Interpreter

C. Assembler

D. Translator

20) A modern electronic computer is a machine that is meant for ....

A. Doing quick mathematical calculation

B. Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data

C. Electronic Data processing

D. Performing repetitive task accurately

Answers:

1) D. Arithmetic Logic and Control Unit

2) B. 72

3) B. Application Software

4) A. Continuous electrical pulses

5) C. Execution time

6) D. EEPROM

7) D. Sixteen Stable state

8) A. ASCII

9) C. 1024 megabytes

10) A. Time to position the head over proper track

11) D. All of the above

12) D. Program

13) C. RAM

14) C. Both sequentially and parallel

15) D. Temporary

16) A. Machine language

17) B. Dumb terminal

18) B. Charles Babbage

19) C. Assembler

20) B. Input, storage, manipulation and outputting of data

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Computer Fundamental Multiple Choice Question set-6

1) Different components on the motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical conducting lines. What are these lines called?

A. Conductor's

B. Buses

C. Connectors

D. Consecutively

2) The ARPANET helped to develop protocol called .....

A. TCP/IP

B. POPA

C. ARP

D. None

3) The ALU of central processing unit does the essential math work for the computer. What does the control unit do .....

A. Communicate its results

B. Activates the output device

C. Monitors the flow of information

D. Control the printer

4) The language that the computer can understand and execute is called ....

A. Machine language

B. Application software

C. System program

D. All of the above

5) Boot virus affects the ......... of the program of a system.

A. Boot recorded program

B. Booting computer

C. Boot halted

D. None

6) Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model?

A. Tables

B. Treelike Structure

C. Complex logical relationships

D. Records

7) Who designed the first electronics computer ENIAC?

A. Van neumann

B. Joseph M jackquard

C. J. Presper Eckers and John W Mouchley

D. All of the above

8) The process of rewriting parts of a file to continuous sectors on a hard disk to increase the speed of access and retrieval.

A. Fragmentation

B. Defragmentation

C. Both

D. None

9) A language used to express algorithms in computer understandable form is ....

A. Assembly language

B. Low level language

C. Algorithmic language

D. Programming language

10) Instructions and memory addresses are represented by ..

A. Character codes

B. Binary codes

C. Binary words

D. Parity bit

11) Scandisk is performed by using .....

A. Application software

B. Operating system software

C. Utility software

D. None

12) BCD is

A. Bit Coded digit

B. Binary Coded Decimal

C. Bit Code digit

D. Binary Coded Digit

13) What is the name of the computer terminal, which gives paper printout?

A. Display screen

B. Soft-copy terminal

C. Hard copy terminal

D. Plotter

14) Optical fibers are very reliable communication channels and they transmit data in ....

A. Analog

B. Both

C. Digital

D. None

15) Chief components of first generation computer was ...

A. Transistors

B. Vacuum Tubes and Valves

C. Integrated Circuits

D. None of the above

16) The function of CPU is ....

A. to provide a hard copy

B. to read, interprets and processes the information and instruction

C. to communicate with the operator

D. to provide external storage of text

17) Copying file from Internet Server to client computer is called .....

A. Telnet

B. FTP

C. Internet copy

D. Message copy

18) Fifth Generation of Computer is also known as ....

A. Knowledge information processing system

B. Very large scale Integration

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

19) What is meant by the term RAM?

A. Memory which can only be read

B. Memory which can be both read and written to

C. Memory which is used for permanent storage

D. Memory which can only be written to

20) Which is not the network operating system?

A. LINUX

B. UNIX

C. XENIX

D. MS-DOS

Answers:

1) B. Buses

2) C. ARP

3) C. Monitors the flow of information

4) A. Machine language    

5) A. Boot recorded program

6) B. Treelike Structure

7) C. J. Presper Eckers and John W Mouchley

8)  A. Fragmentation

9) A. Assembly language

10) B. Binary codes

11) B. Operating system software

12) B. Binary Coded Decimal

13) C. Hard copy terminal

14) C. Digital

15) B. Vacuum Tubes and Valves

16) B. to read, interprets and processes the information and instruction

17) B. FTP

18) A. Knowledge information processing system

19) B. Memory which can be both read and written to

20) D. MS-DOS

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Objective Questions on Application Layer in OSI/TCP/IP Model set-3

1) In a/an ........... of DNS resolver, instead of supplying a name and asking for an IP address, the DNS client provides the IP address and requests the corresponding host name.

A. Recursive queries

B. Iterative queries

C. Reverse queries

D. Inverse queries

2) For each resolved query, the DNS resolver caches the returned information for a time that is specified in each resource record in the DNS response. This is known as .........

A. Positive caching

B. Time To Live

C. Negative Caching

D. Reverse Caching

3) As originally defined in RFC 1134, .............. negative caching is the caching of failed name resolutions.

A. Positive caching

B. Time To Live

C. Negative Caching

D. Round Robin Load Balancing

4) ............... can reduce response times for names that DNS cannot resolve for both the DNS client and DNS servers during an iterative query process.

A. Positive caching

B. Time To Live

C. Negative Caching

D. Round Robin Load Balancing

5) The amount of time in seconds to cache the record data is referred to as the .........

A. Time To Cache

B. Time To Live

C. Time For Record

D. Time To Save

6) Which of the following issues arises, when multiple resource records for the same resource record type exist.

A. For the DNS server, how to order the resource records in the DNS Name Query Response message.

B. For the DNS client, how to choose a specific resource record in the DNS Name Query Response message.

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above.

7) To address the issues arises when multiple resource records for the same resource record type exist, RFC 1794 describes a mechanism named ................. to share and distribute loads for network resources.

A. Positive caching

B. Time To Live

C. Negative Caching

D. Round Robin Load Balancing

8) A ............ gets the data for its zones from locally stored and maintained files.

A. primary name server

B. secondary name server

C. ternary name server

D. primary name client

9) A ............. gets the data for its zones across the network from another name server.

A. primary name server

B. secondary name server

C. ternary name server

D. primary name client

10) The process of obtaining zone information across the network is referred to as a .........

A. zone obtaining

B. zone transfer

C. zone information

D. zone extracting

11) Which of the following is/are the reasons to have secondary name servers within an enterprise network.

A. Redundancy

B. Remote locations

C. Load distribution

D. All of the above

12) The source of the zone information for a secondary name server is referred to as a ..........

A. Name server

B. Primary Name Server

C. Master Name Server

D. Secondary Name Server

13) In .......... , when a name server receives a DNS query that it cannot resolve through its own zone files, it sends a recursive query to its forwarder.

A. exclusive mode

B. non-exclusive mode

C. caching mode

D. zonal mode

14) Which of the following is not the work done by a name server using a forwarder in exclusive mode, when attempting to resolve a name.

A. Checks its local cache

B. Checks its zone files

C. Sends a recursive query to a forwarder

D. Attempts to resolve the name through iterative queries to other DNS servers.

15) In ..........., name servers rely on the name-resolving ability of the forwarders.

A. exclusive mode

B. non-exclusive mode

C. caching mode

D. zonal mode

16) Name servers in ........... make no attempt to resolve the query on their own if the forwarder is unable to satisfy the request.

A. exclusive mode

B. non-exclusive mode

C. caching mode

D. zonal mode

17) ........... are DNS servers that only perform queries, cache the answers, and return the results.

A. Querying only server

B. Results only server

C. Caching only server

D. Information only server

18) In DNS resource records, ............ indicate primary and secondary servers for the zone specified in the SOA resource record, and they indicate the servers for any delegated zones.

A. SOA records

B. A records

C. MX records

D. NS records

19) In DNS resource records,......... specifies a mail exchange server for a DNS domain name.

A. SRV

B. MX

C. PTR

D. NS

20) In DNS resource records, .......... specifies the IP addresses of servers of a specific service, protocol and DNS domain.

A. SRV

B. MX

C. PTR

D. NS

Answers:

1) C. Reverse queries
2) A. Positive caching
3) C. Negative Caching
4) C. Negative Caching
5) B. Time To Live
6) C. Both of the above
7) D. Round Robin Load Balancing
8) A. primary name server
9) B. secondary name server
10) B. zone transfer
11) D. All of the above
12) C. Master Name Server
13) B. non-exclusive mode
14) D. Attempts to resolve the name through iterative queries to other DNS servers.
15) A. exclusive mode
16) A. exclusive mode
17) C. Caching only server
18) D. NS records
19) B. MX
20) A. SRV

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Solved MCQ on Application Layer in OSI/TCP/IP Model set-2

1) In MIME header field, ............. is a world unique value identifying the content of this part of this message.

A. content-type

B. content-transfer-encoding

C. content-description

D. content-id

2) The Post Office Protocol, version 3, is a standard protocol with STD number 53 and it is described in .....

A. RFC 1939

B. RFC 0937

C. RFC 2821

D. RFC 2822

3) .............. is an electronic mail protocol with both client and server functions.

A. SMTP

B. MIME

C. POP

D. TCP

4) In authentication state of POP3 server, ............ is used to specify a mechanism by which both authentication and data protection can be provided.

A. USER

B. PASS

C. APOP

D. AUTH

5) In transaction state of POP3 commands, .......... retrieve the number of messages and total size of the messages.

A. STAT

B. LIST

C. RETR

D. DELE

6) A MIME compliant message must contain a header field with the ........ verbatim text.

A. MIME-version:1.0

B. MIME-version:1.1

C. MIME-version:2.0

D. MIME-version:2.1

7) In ......... name space, a name is assigned to an address. It is a sequence of characters without structure.

A. hierarchical

B. sequential

C. flat

D. addressed

8) The main disadvantage of a ......... name space is that it cannot be used in a large system such as the internet because it may be centrally controlled to avoid ambiguity and duplication.

A. hierarchical

B. sequential

C. flat

D. addressed

9) The ......... protocol defines a set of messages sent over either User Datagram Protocol(UDP) port53 or Transmission Control Protocol(TCP) port53.

A. Name space

B. DNS

C. Domain space

D. Zone transfer

10) Primary specifications for DNS are defined in which of the following Request for Comments(RFCs)?

A. 974

B. 1034

C. 1035

D. All of the above

11) Which of the following is/are the components of DNS defined by RFC 1034?

A. The domain namespace and resource records

B. Name servers

C. Resolvers

D. All of the above

12) ............ are records in the DNS database that can be used to configure the DNS database server or to contain information of different types of process client queries.

A. Domain namespace

B. Resource records

C. Name servers

D. Resolvers

13) ........... store resource records and information about the domain tree structure and attempt to resolve received client queries.

A. Domain namespace

B. DNS Names

C. Name servers

D. Resolvers

14) ............ are programs that run on DNS clients and DNS servers and that create queries to extract information from name servers.

A. Domain namespace

B. Resource records

C. Name servers

D. Resolvers

15) ........... have a very specific structure, which identifies the location of the name in the DNS namespace.

A. Domain namespace

B. DNS Names

C. Name servers

D. Resolvers

16) A ................... is a DNS domain name that has been constructed from its location relative to the root of the namespace is known as the root domain.

A. Fully Qualified Domain Name(FQDN)

B. Fully Structured Domain Name(FSDN)

C. Fully Constructed Domain Name(FCDN)

D. Fully Rooted Domain Name(FRDN)

17) State whether the following statements are True or False for the attributes of Fully Qualified Domain Name(FQDN).

i) FQDN are case-sensitive

ii) A period character separates each name.

iii) The entire FQDN can not be no more than 255 characters long.

A. i-True, ii-True, iii-False

B. i-True, ii-False, iii-True

C. i-False, ii-True, iii-True

D. i-False, ii-True, iii-False

18) A ...... is a contiguous portion of a domain of the DNS namespace whose database records exist and managed in a particular DNS database file stored on one or multiple DNS servers.

A. Subdomain

B. Zone

C. Sub DNS

D. Sub zone

19) In a/an ........... of DNS resolver, the queried name server is requested to respond with the requested data or with an error stating that data of the requested type or the specified domain name does not exist.

A. Recursive queries

B. Iterative queries

c. Reverse queries

D. Inverse queries

20) In MIME header field, ......... is a plain text description of the object within the body, which is useful when the object is not human-readable.

A. content-type

B. content-transfer-encoding

C. content-description

D.content-id

                                                                                                                                                                                                                Answers:

1) D. content-id
2) A. RFC 1939
3) C. POP
4) D. AUTH
5) A. STAT
6) A. MIME-version:1.0
7) C. flat
8) C. flat
9) B. DNS
10) D. All of the above
11) D. All of the above
12) B. Resource records
13) C. Name servers
14) D. Resolvers
15) B. DNS Names
16) A. Fully Qualified Domain Name(FQDN)
17) C. i-False, ii-True, iii-True
18) B. Zone 
19) A. Recursive queries
20) C. content-description

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MCQ Questions on Application Layer in OSI/TCP/IP Model set-1

1) Which of the following is/are the important applications of application layer?

A. Electronic mail

B. World Wide Web

C. USENET

D. All of the above

2) The TCP/IP ............. corresponds to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI model.

A. session layer

B. presentation layer

C. application layer

D. None of the above

3) The .......... protocol is based on end-to-end delivery.

A. SMTP

B. TCP

C. IP

D. SCTP

4) The well-known port of SMTP server is ........

A. 110

B. 25

C. 50

D. 20

5) In SMTP header field, ............. is a summary of the message being sent which is specified by the sender.

A. Reply-to

B. Return-path

C. Subject

D. From

6) In SMTP herder field, .......... is added by the final transport system that deilvers the mail.

A. Reply-to

B. Return-path

C. Subject

D. From

7) In SMTP mail transaction flow, the sender SMTP establishes a TCP connection with the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a ..........

A. 220 service ready message

B. 421 service not available message

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

8) In SMTP mail transaction flow, .......... is sent, to which the receiver will identify itself by sending back its domain name.

A. HELO

B. MAIL FROM

C. RCPT TO

D. DATA

9) ............ is a command-line tool designed for most UNIX-like operating systems, which does not define a method of transferring mail, but rather acts as a client/server that supports multiple mail protocols.

A. Recieivemail

B. Sendmail

C. MIME

D. POP

10) Which of the following is/are the components of sendmail?

A. Mail user agent(MUA)

B. Mail transfer agent(MTA)

C. Mail delivery agent(MDA)

D. All of the above

11) The ............ is the interface through which a user can read and send mail.

A. Mail user agent(MUA)

B. Mail transfer agent(MTA)

C. Mail delivery agent(MDA)

D. Mail send agent(MSA)

12) The ............ acts like a mail router, accepting messages from both MTAs and MUAs.

A. Mail user agent(MUA)

B. Mail transfer agent(MTA)

C. Mail delivery agent(MDA)

D. Mail send agent(MSA)

13) .......... uses a queuing system to manage inbound and outbound mail.

A. Recieivemail

B. Sendmail

C. MIME

D. POP

14) The sender SMTP establishes a TCP connection with the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a ...... service ready message.

A. 421

B. 320

C. 220

D. 120

15) ............ is limited to 7-bit ASCII text, with a maximum line length of 1000 characters.

A. SMTP

B. MIME

C. POP

D. MTA

16) A ........... message is one which can be routed through any number of networks that are loosely compliant with RFC2821 or are capable of transmitting RFC2821 messages.

A. SMTP

B. MIME

C. POP

D. MTA

17) There are ....... number of standard content types in MIME.

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 4

18) In MIME header field, ......... describes how the object within the body is to be interpreted.

A. content-type

B. content-transfer-encoding

C. content-description

D. content-id

19) In MIME header field, ............ describes how the object within the body was encoded in order that it be included in the message using a mail-safe form.

A. content-type

B. content-transfer-encoding

C. content-description

D. content-id

20) In a/an ............ of DNS resolver, the queried name server can return the best answer it currently has back to the DNS resolver.

A. Recursive queries

B. Iterative queries

c. Reverse queries

D. Inverse queries

Answers:

1) D. All of the above

2) C. application layer

3) A. SMTP

4) B. 25

5) C. Subject

6) B. Return-path

7) C. Both of the above

8) A. HELO

9) B. Sendmail

10) D. All of the above

11) A. Mail user agent(MUA)

12) B. Mail transfer agent(MTA)

13) B. Sendmail

14) C. 220

15) A. SMTP

16) B. MIME

17) B. 7

18) A. content-type

19) B. content-transfer-encoding

20) B. Iterative queries

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Objective Questions on Transport Layer in OSI Model set-1

                    

1) The .......... is responsible for end to end delivery, segmentation and concatenation.

A. Physical layer

B. Data Link layer

C. Network layer

D. Transport layer

2) .......... needs ports or service access points.

A. Physical layer

B. Data Link layer

C. Network layer

D. Transport layer

3) The task of ............... is to provide reliable, cost effective transport of data from source machine to destination machine.

A. Network Layer

B. Transport Layer

C. Presentation Layer

D. Application Layer

4) The hardware and/or software within the transport layer which does the work of making use of the services provided by the network layer is called as .........

A. transport media

B. transport device

C. transport entity

D. network transporter

5) .......... measures the number of bytes of user data transferred per second, measured over some time interval. It is measured separately for each direction.

A. Throughput

B. Transit delay

C. Protection

D. Resilience

6) ............ is the time between a message being sent by the transport user on the source machine and its being receive by the transport user on the destination machine.

A. Throughput

B. Transit delay

C. Protection

D. Resilience

7) The time difference between the instant at which a transport connection is requested and the instant at which it is confirmed is called as ........

A. Connection establishment delay

B. Transit delay

C. Protection delay

D. Priority delay

8) The message sent from transport entity to transport entity is called as ..........

A. transport data unit

B. transport display data unit

C. transport protocol data unit

D. transport protocol display unit

9) ........ are designed for the protocols like ICMP or OSPF, because these protocols are not use either stream packets or datagram sockets.

A. Berkeley sockets

B. Stream sockets

C. Datagram sockets

D. Raw sockets

10) .......... is designed for the connectionless protocol such as User Datagram Protocol(UDP).

A. Berkeley socket

B. Stream socket

C. Datagram socket

D. Raw socket

11) ............ is designed for the connection oriented protocol such as Transmission Control Protocol(TCP).

A. Berkeley socket

B. Stream socket

C. Datagram socket

D. Raw socket

12) ............ is used to implement the transport layer services between the two transport entities.

A. Transport service

B. Transport protocol

C. Transport address

D. Transport control

13) Which of the following is/are the tasks of transport protocols.

A. Error control

B. Sequencing

C. Flow control

D. All of the above

14) The internet uses universal port numbers for services and these numbers are called as .......

A. Well known port numbers

B. Fixed port numbers

C. Standard port numbers

D. Ephemeral port numbers

15) In the internet model, the client program defines itself with a port number which is chosen randomly. This number is called as .......

A. Well known port numbers

B. Fixed port numbers

C. Standard port numbers

D. Ephemeral port numbers

16) The port numbers ........... are known as well known ports and they are reserved for standard circuits.

A. below 1024

B. above 1024

C. below 2048

D. below 512

17) In the TCP segment header, .......... is a 32-bit number identifying the current position of the first data byte in the segment within the entire byte stream for the TCP connection.

A. serial number

B. current number

C. sequence number

D. acknowledgement number

18) In the TCP segment header, .......... is a 32-bit number identifying the next data byte the sender expects from the receiver.

A. serial number

B. current number

C. sequence number

D. acknowledgement number

19) A ........ is a special type of file handle, which is used by a process to request network services from the operating system.

A. socket

B. handler

C. requester

D. protocol

20) ........ is an optional 16-bit one's complement of the one's complement sum of a pseudo-IP header, the UDP header, and the UDP data.

A. Congestion

B. Checksum

C. Pseudosum

D. Headersum

Answers:

1) D. Transport layer

2) D. Transport layer

3) B. Transport Layer

4) C. transport entity

5) A. Throughput

6) B. Transit delay

7) A. Connection establishment delay

8) C. transport protocol data unit

9) D. Raw sockets

10) C. Datagram socket

11) B. Stream socket

12) B. Transport protocol

13) D. All of the above

14) A. Well known port numbers

15) D. Ephemeral port numbers  

16) A. below 1024

17) C. sequence number

18) D. acknowledgement number

19) A. socket

20) B. Checksum

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Interview Questions on Network Layer in OSI Model set-1

1) The ......... provides two well-defined classes of services, namely connectionless and connection oriented services to the numerous nodes or hosts communicating through subnet.

A. physical layer

B. data link layer

C. network layer

D. transport layer


2) In computer networking the term .......... refers to selecting paths in a computer network along which to send data.

A. routing

B. inter-networking

C. internal organization

D. congestion control


3) ............ Routing algorithms do not base their routing decisions on measurements or estimates of the current traffic and topology.

A. Static or Non-adaptive

B. Static or adaptive

C. Dynamic or Non-adaptive

D. Dynamic or adaptive


4) ............. Routing algorithm in contrast change their routing decisions to reflect changes in topology and usually the traffic as well.

A. Static or Non-adaptive

B. Static or adaptive

C. Dynamic or Non-adaptive

D. Dynamic or adaptive


5) ........... is also a static algorithm in which every incoming packet is sent out on every outgoing line except the one it arrives on.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Flooding

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing


6) .......... is basically a vector that keeps track of best known distance to each destination and which line to use to get there.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Flooding

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing


7) In addresses for .......... networks, the first 16 bits specify a particular network, and the last 16 bits specify a particular host.

A. class A

B. class C

C. class B

D. class D


8) In .......... , the routers are divided into regions. Each router knows all details about how to route packets to destinations within its own region.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Link state Routing

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing


9) In .......... , each node uses as its fundamental data a map of the network in the form of a graph.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Link state Routing

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing


10) ......... protocols are simple and efficient in small networks, and require little, if any management.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Link state Routing

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing



11) In ........... routing algorithm, each router knows all details about how to route packets to destinations within its own region. But does not have any idea about internal structure of other regions.

A. Shortest Path Algorithm

B. Link state Routing

C. Distance Vector Routing

D. Hierarchical Routing


12) The set of optimal routers from source to a given destination from a tree rooted at the destination called a ........ tree.

A. sink

B. optimal

C. rooted

D. routing


13) .......... is a simple mathematical computation used to check for bit-level errors in the IPV4 header.

A. Identification

B. Protocol

C. Checksum

D. Time-to-Live(TTL)


14) The number of network segments on which the datagram is allowed to travel before a router should discard it is called .......

A. Identification

B. Protocol

C. Checksum

D. Time-to-Live(TTL)


15) .......... is an identifier of the upper-layer protocol to which the IPV4 payload must be passed.

A. Identification

B. Protocol

C. Checksum

D. Time-to-Live(TTL)


16) The IPV4 address of the intermediate or final destination of the IPV4 packet is called .......

A. Source IP Address

B. Destination IP Address

C. Identification

D. Checksum


17) .......... type of IPV4 address is assigned to all network interfaces located on a subnet, used for one-to-everyone on a subnet communication.

A. Unicast

B. Multicast

C. Broadcast

D. Anycast


18) The ......... header field of IPV6 indicates the number of likes on which the packet is allowed to travel before being discarded by a router.

A. Source Address

B. Destination Address

C. Next Header

D. Hop Limit


19) ......... is an identifier for either the IPV6 extension header immediately following the IPV6 header or an upper layer protocol, such as ICMPv6, TCP or UDP.

A. Source Address

B. Destination Address

C. Next Header

D. Hop Limit


20) The internet addresses are ......... bits in length in IPV4 addressing scheme.

A. 16

B. 64

C. 32

D. 48

Answers:

1) C. network layer
2) A. routing  
3) A. Static or Non-adaptive
4) D. Dynamic or adaptive
5) B. Flooding 
6) C. Distance Vector Routing
7) C. class B
8) D. Hierarchical Routing
9) B. Link state Routing
10) C. Distance Vector Routing
11) D. Hierarchical Routing
12) A. sink
13) C. Checksum
14) D. Time-to-Live(TTL)
15) B. Protocol
16) B. Destination IP Address
17) C. Broadcast
18) D. Hop Limit
19) C. Next Header
20) C. 32

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